Why would not simply making use of the lands of a country (i.e. for traveling) make you subject to that country's laws because of the implicit benefits you gain (i.e. safe passage, an efficient road, etc.)? I believe that Locke himself addresses this question from this point of view in a later section of the Second Treatise.
Locke outlined the aims and purposes of the state in his "Two Treatises of Government", and by the time of the American Revolution, Locke's principles and philosophies were well known and deeply embedded into American political thought.
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